Kerala PSC QBank

Supervisor ICDS

16/2025/OL

1. A family where two previously divorced or widowed individuals with children marry or cohabitate is called a

Nuclear Family

Extended Family

Blended Family

Single-Parent Family

2. The process by which an individual learns and internalizes the values, beliefs, and norms of a culture is called

Enculturation

Acculturation

Assimilation

Diffusion

3. Which of the following is an example of secondary socialization?

A child learning the family's religious practices

A child learning how to speak through interactions with family members

A child learning societal gender norms through media and peer groups

A child learning basic motor skills through play

4. Which of the following best defines a polymorous family?

Two unmarried individuals living together in a committed romantic relationship

A family in which extended members live in a single household

A family unit consisting of only one parent and their children

A family where one or both partners have consensual relationship with multiple people

5. Assertion (A): Domestic violence laws often aim to protect victims regardless of gender.

Reason (R): Patriarchal structures are the sole contributors to domestic violence.

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

(A) is false, but (R) is true

6. Which of the following is NOT a direct social consequence of alcoholism?

Family breakdown

Increase in community cohesion

Domestic violence

Workplace absenteeism

7. Which provision of Indian law empowers the court to presume abetment of suicide in cases of dowry harassment?

Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act

Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act

Section 498A of the IPC

Section 304B of the IPC

8. In 2022, India introduced a first-of-its-kind scheme aimed specifically at the employment of transgender individuals. Which state launched this initiative?

Tamil Nadu

Kerala

Maharashtra

Gujarat

9. Which global initiative has most significantly influenced the development of elderly care policies in developing countries?

The United Nations' Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (2002)

The world Health Organization's Global Strategy and Action Plan on Ageing and Health (2016)

The International Labour Organization's Convention on the Rights of Older Workers (2001)

The World Bank's Global Aging and Pension Reform Initiative (2012)

10. Assertion (A): Globalization has led to an increase in child labour in certain industries in developing countries.

Reason (R):Globalization often leads to an increased demand for cheap labour, which exploits vulnerable children in low-wage sectors.

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

(A) is false, but (R) is true

11. Which of the following statements about greenhouse gases is/are correct?

**i.**The term greenhouse gases refer to the atmospheric gases that absorb the spectrum and emit them back within the thermal range of infrared radiation. ii. These gases can significantly affect the global temperature. iii. The temperature of the Earth's surface would have been almost 59° Fahrenheit colder than the present temperature in the presence of these gases.

only i is correct

only ii is correct

both i and ii are correct

All are correct

12. Efficient consumerism can be achieved by: i. Product standards may be verified before buying from market. ii. Waste minimization techniques can be adopted. iii. Recycling and proper disposal of waste materials can be done. iv. Enactment and implementation of strict legislation.

only i is correct

only ii is correct

both i and ii are correct

all are correct

13. Which is the Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the right to work?

MGNREGA 2005

Unorganized Workers' Social Security Act, 2008

Employment Exchange Act, 1959

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

14. What is the key difference between resettlement and rehabilitation in the context of displaced persons and project-affected persons?

Resettlement involves psychological support, while rehabilitation is limited to economic compensation

Resettlement focuses on one-time relocation, while rehabilitation focuses on rebuilding livelihoods and addressing socio-cultural aspects

Rehabilitation is a one-time process, while resettlement is continuous

Resettlement focuses only on common property resources while rehabilitation excludes economic factors

15. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Self-Help Group (SHG) programme?

i. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.

ii. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.

only i and ii

only i

only ii

none

16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List I	List II
1. B.R. Mehta Committee	A. 73rd Amendment Act
2. Ashok Mehta Committee	B. Two tier system
3. Panchayath Raj Institutions	C. Central Finance Commission
4. Article 243 (1)	D. Three Tier System

1-D, 2-B, 3-А, 4-C

1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

17. Assertion (A): Education is the most effective tool to reduce gender discrimination in society.

Reason (R): Educating women improves their employability, increases decision-making power and reduces dependence.

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

(A) is false, but (R) is true

18. What is a significant barrier to women's participation in political processes?

Equal representation in leadership positions

Cultural and social norms promoting gender equality

Financial dependence and unequal access to resources

Absence of women-centric issues in governance

19. Match the international conventions with their focus areas related to women in governance.

Conventions/Treaties	Focus Areas
1. CEDAW	A. 1993
2. Beijing Declaration	B. International human rights treaty
3. UNSCR 1325	C. Women, Peace and Security Agenda
4. Vienna Declaration	D. Global agenda for gender equality.

1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

20. Which of the following was not recommended by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act regarding Panchayati Raj?

i. 33% seats will be reserved for women candidates at all levels in all elected rural bodies.

ii. States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions.

iii. The act establishes a two-tier structure for panchayaths.

only i

ii and iii

only ii

only iii

21. Which of the following is true about structured interviews?

i. All interviewees receive the same context of questioning.

ii. Interviewers strictly follow the order and working of questions.

iii. Questions are usually open-ended and allow for flexible responses.

iv. Structured interviews are commonly used in survey research.

only (i and ii)

only (i, ii and iii)

only (i and iii)

only (i, ii and iv)

22. One of the advantages of self-completion questionnaires over structured interviews is that :

They are quicker and cheaper to administer

They create interviewer effects

They have greater measurement validity

They are less prone to inter-coder variation

23. Assertion (A): Closed questions are easier and quicker for interviewers and respondents to complete.

Reason (R): In closed questions, respondents are not required to write extensively but instead select or circle predefined answers.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false

Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

24. Match the following methods with their specific features.

Column A (Methods)	Column B (Specific Features)
1. Case Study	A. Requires direct interaction in participants' natural environment
2. Focus Group Discussion	B. Relies on firsthand data collected directly from individuals or groups
3. Participant Observation	C. Examines a single case or phenomenon in great detail over a period of time
4. Primary Data	D. Uses guided group interaction to gather perceptions and opinions

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

25. Which of the following terms best describes systematic walks with key informants through the area of interest, observing land and water use, and seeking problems and solutions?

Systemic walk

Field survey

Community assessment walk

Transect walk

26. Which of the following is considered the earliest organized social welfare effort?

Charity Organization Societies

Elizabethan Poor Laws

Settlement House Movement

Beveridge Report

27. Social work and social service differ in

The scale of intervention

The need for professional training

Their ultimate objectives

Their association with government welfare

28. Which value is most critical when a social worker intervenes in a case of child abuse?

Respect for client confidentiality

Social justice

Cultural competence

Non-maleficence

29. Which statement is TRUE about the relationship between IFSW and IASSW?

I. Both organizations focus exclusively on practitioner development.

II. IFSW represents practitioners, while IASSW focuses on educators and researchers.

III. IASSW is a subset of IFSW.

IV. Both organizations are responsible for accrediting social work degrees globally.

only (i and ii)

only (ii)

only (i, iii and iv)

only (iv)

30. Which of the following is an example of 'Engage in practice-informed research'?

Conducting a randomized control trial on a new intervention

Analyzing census data for a community project

Developing a new diagnostic tool for assessments

Using client feedback to improve service delivery methods

31. During the exploration phase of social case work, a common challenge is

Balancing the client's self-determination with confidentiality

Ensuring that the client fully discloses all relevant information

Developing immediate intervention strategies

Establishing a professional yet empathetic client-worker relationship

32. In social case work, self-determination can conflict with which of the following principles?

Confidentiality in cases of client disclosure

Beneficence when a client's decision may lead to self-harm

Justice when prioritizing community welfare over individual autonomy

Accountability in reporting client progress to supervisors

33. Why is empathy considered a transformative skill in social case work?

It allows the worker to mirror the client's emotional state for validation

It bridges the power imbalance between the worker and client by promoting mutual understanding

It replaces the need for solution-focused techniques by fostering emotional connection

It ensures the client accepts the social worker's interventions without resistance

34. Which principle is critical during the initial phase of group formation?

Respect for individuality

Evaluation of group goals

Identification of latent leadership

Promotion of group cohesion

35. Which factor best indicates active participation in a therapeutic group?

High attendance rates

Voluntary sharing of experiences

Agreement with group leader's views

Lengthy contributions to discussions

36. Which feedback type is most effective in encouraging behavior change within a group setting?

General positive feedback

Constructive feedback with specific examples

Negative feedback addressing faults

Group consensus-based feedback

37. In the process of community organization, which of the following is correct sequential flow of roles played by a community organizer to ensure that a community is empowered effectively?

Building rapport → Assessing community needs → Developing strategies → Mobilizing community participation → Evaluating progress

Assessing community needs → Building rapport → Developing strategies → Mobilizing community participation → Evaluating progress

Building rapport → Mobilizing Community Participation → Assessing community needs → Developing strategies → Evaluating progress

Mobilizing Community Participation → Building rapport → Assessing community needs → Developing strategies → Evaluating progress

38. Match the community development strategy with the theorist who advocated for it.

Strategies	Theorists
1. Empowerment through Education	A. Paul Freire
2. Mobilizing Resources for change	B. Saul Alinsky
3. Direct Action for justice	C. Mary Parker Follett
4. Participatory leadership	D. Jim Ife
5. Conflict and Cooperation Balance	E. Jack Rothman

1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E

1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E

1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E, 5-D

1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-D, 5-A

39. Which of the following best describes social welfare?

A system that supports only unemployed individuals

A system focused on the collective well-being and needs of individuals and communities

A system that offers legal assistance

A method for income generation

40. The first step in the process of social welfare administration is

Program implementation

Policy evaluation

Assessing community needs

Financial management

41. Social welfare programs should be designed to

Address only the immediate needs of individuals

Provide long-term solutions to societal issues

Focus solely on the financial aspects

Serve a limited number of individuals

42. Which of the following is the role of a social action group?

Advocate for social change and challenge the status quo

Work only with elected representatives

Preserve existing social structures

Support governmental policies without question

43. Which theory focuses on the idea that social action arises from the meanings individuals attach to their actions and social interactions?

Structural functionalism

Symbolic interactionism

Feminist theory

Conflict theory

44. Which type of sampling involves dividing the population into distinct subgroups and selecting a random sample from each subgroup?

Simple Random Sampling

Stratified Sampling

Cluster Sampling

Convenience Sampling

45. Which of the following is used to measure the spread or dispersion of data in a dataset?

Mean

Standard deviation

Median

Mode

46. Which of the following is the primary purpose of performing an ANOVA test?

Compare the means of two or more groups

Determine the correlation between two variables

Calculate the standard deviation of a sample

Test the hypothesis of independence between two categorical variables

47. What is the primary function of the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)?

Conduct judicial proceedings for children in conflict with law

Manage child welfare programs

Run educational programs for juveniles

Supervise child adoption cases

48. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the District Child Protection Unit (DCPU)?

Setting up child protection committees

Implementing child labor laws

Conducting juvenile justice hearings

Ensuring implementation of child protection policies

49. What is the focus of the KAVAL PLUS scheme?

Provide financial aid to underprivileged children

Reduce school dropout rates among children

Provide protective services to children at risk

Improve children's educational outcomes

50. Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of POSHAN ABHIYAN in India?

Ministry of Women and Child Development

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Ministry of Education

Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

51. Selective attention is also known as

i. Endogenous attention,

ii. Goal-driven attention,

iii. Volitional attention,

iv. Executive attention

All of the above

All except iii

ii and iv

ii only

52. Driving a car and talking to a passenger at the same time is an example of

Focussed Attention

Executive Attention

Alternative Attention

Divided Attention

53. Which of the following statement is correct?

Sensation is top down approach while perception is bottom up approach

Sensation is bottom up approach while perception is top down approach

Both sensation and perception are top down approach

Both sensation and perception are bottom up approach

54. When we look at the Olympic logo, we see overlapping circles rather than the assortment of curved, connected lines. The underlying law is

Law of Similarity

Law of Pragnanz

Law of Closure

Law of Common Region

55. The distinct memory stores in the brain according to Atkinson and Shiffrin are:

Fluid memory and Crystalized memory

Working memory, Short-term memory and Long-term memory

Fluid memory and Short-term memory and Long-term memory

Sensory memory, Short-term memory and Long-term memory

56. Which of the following are correct about WMS

i. Anyone ages 16 to 90 is eligible to take this test.

ii. The fourth edition (WMS-IV) has been published in 2019.

iii. WMS was first published in 1945.

All the above are correct

i and ii are correct

i and iii are correct

ii and iii are correct

57. The five stages that people follow during the creative process as outlined by Graham Wallace are:

(i) Incubation (ii) Illumination (iii) Verification and (iv) Preparation

(i) Illumination (ii) Verification (iii) Incubation and (iv) Production

(i) Preparation, (ii) Illumination (iii) Incubation and (iv) Verification

(i) Preparation (ii) Incubation (iii) Illumination and (iv) Verification

58. The five kinds of contents as per the SOI model are:

Cognition, Memory, Production, Evaluation and Semantic

Visual, Auditory, Systems, Semantic and Behavioural

Behavioural, Visual, Symbolic, Semantic and Auditory

Visual, Auditory, Symbolic, Semantic and Relations

59. The first step in problem solving is

Diagnosing the root cause/causes

Defining the problem

Identifying the alternatives available

Analysing the problem

60. Statements :

i. All tigers are mammals.

ii. Some mammals are carnivores.

Conclusion:

I. Some tigers are carnivores.

II. All carnivores are tigers.

Only conclusion I is correct

Only conclusion II is correct

Both conclusion I and II are correct

Neither conclusion I nor II is correct

61. Which of the following is/are intrinsic motivation?

i. Participating in sports competition by own initiation.

ii. A person dancing for health benefits.

iii. A child riding cycle.

iv. Self-study for examination.

v. Reading for general knowledge.

All the given activities

ii, iii, iv and v

ii and iii

iii only

62. Which of the following is true as per the James-Lange Theory of emotion?

Physiological responses occur first and they play a major role in the experience of emotion

Emotion occur first and then physiological responses take place

Emotion and physical experience take place together

Thoughts are responsible for emotions

63. In classical conditioning, what does the conditioned response (CR) refer to?

The natural reaction to an unconditioned stimulus

The learned response to a conditioned stimulus

The response to an unconditioned stimulus

A neutral response to a stimulus

64. Higher-order conditioning occurs when :

A neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus by being paired with an existing conditioned stimulus

A conditioned stimulus no longer elicits a response

A neutral stimulus becomes a neutral stimulus

A conditioned response is extinguished

65. Which of the following best illustrates the principle of behavioral contrast in operant conditioning?

A student receives a reward for every correct answer, and their performance improves over time

A child is given a cookie for finishing their homework early, but their homework performance decreases when the reward is stopped

A gambler continues to gamble because they have won on occasion, even though they mostly lose

A student behaves well at home because they know their parents will give them a reward at the end of the week

66. When using positive reinforcement, which of the following is most important for ensuring that the reinforcement is effective?

The reinforcement should be delayed to give the individual time to reflect on their behavior

The reinforcement should be varied randomly to maintain interest

The reinforcement should immediately follow the desired behavior

The reinforcement should be given only after the behavior has been repeated several times

67. According to Allport, which of the following best describes the functional autonomy of motives?

Motives that remain static and do not evolve throughout life

Motives that are always learned through observation and socialization

Motives that are exclusively tied to childhood experiences

Motives that, once established, are no longer influenced by their original causes

68. Carl Rogers suggested that the primary task of therapy is

To help the client discover the root causes of their unconscious conflicts

To help the client develop a more realistic understanding of themselves by promoting congruence

To encourage the client to adopt societal norms and behaviors to improve social functioning

To challenge the client's self-concept in order to confront irrational beliefs

69. In Erikson's Trust vs. Mistrust stage, which of the following is considered crucial for the development of trust?

The ability to successfully navigate societal expectations for success

A child's ability to assert independence and control their environment

The development of a strong sense of identity through peer relationships

The consistent and reliable care provided by caregivers

70. In Bandura's self-system, cognitive processes are important because they

Determine an individual's ability to control their impulses and delay gratification

Serve as the primary mechanism through which people adapt to social environments and influence their actions

Completely determine the outcome of behaviors without any influence from the environment

Are irrelevant, as Bandura's theory emphasizes behavioral reinforcement over congnition

71. In a workplace, Sonia notices that her colleague, Hari frequently arrives late to meetings. Sonia attributes Hari's lateness to his personal laziness and lack of commitment. However, Sonia later learns that Hari has been dealing with health issues, which have caused him to be late. According to Attribution Theory, Sonia's initial attribution of Hari's behavior is most likely an example of :

Fundamental Attribution Error

Self-Serving Bias

Actor-Observer Bias

Consensus Effect

72. Justin has always considered himself an environmentally conscious person, frequently recycling and minimizing his carbon footprint. However, when he bought a new car, he chose a model that is known to have high fuel consumption and low environmental efficiency. Justin experiences discomfort about his choice because it conflicts with his prior self-image as an eco-friendly person. According to Cognitive Dissonance Theory, how is Justin likely to reduce the dissonance he is feeling?

He will start driving less to offset his environmental impact

He will ignore the dissonance and avoid thinking about it

He will buy a second car that is more environmentally friendly

He will justify his decision by telling himself that the new car is necessary for his job

73. A researcher is studying the effectiveness of a new intervention designed to improve communication skills in children with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD). The intervention focuses on using visual aids, such as picture cards, to help children express their needs. Some parents report improvements in their children's communication, while others see no change. What is the most likely explanation for these differing outcomes?

All children with ASD respond to visual aids in the same way, so the intervention is ineffective for some children

The intervention may be more effective for children with lower levels of language development or those who are more visually oriented

Parent who report no change may not be using the picture cards consistently, leading to inconsistent results

The intervention is likely ineffective for all children with ASD because it is based on a single strategy in the form of visual aids

74. A patient with schizophrenia exhibits a complete lack of motivation, diminished emotional expression, and an inability to complete daily tasks. Which symptom domain is primarily involved here?

Positive symptoms

Cognitive symptoms

Negative symptoms

Affective symptoms

75. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature between generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and panic disorder?

Panic disorder is characterized by constant worrying about future events, while GAD involves unpredictable and sudden anxiety attacks

The primary symptom of GAD is avoidance of feared situations, whereas panic disorder involves intrusive thoughts

Panic disorder is associated with fear of social situations, while GAD involves fears related to separation from loved ones

GAD involves persistent, excessive worry about a variety of topics, while panic disorder is marked by sudden, recurrent episodes of intense fear or discomfort

76. Which stage of child development is characterized by rapid physical growth and motor skill development?

Infancy

Adolescence

Early childhood

Middle childhood

77. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing child development?

Genetics

Parenting styles

Peer relationships

Seasonal weather patterns

78. According to Jean Piaget's theory, which stage involves the development of object permanence?

Pre operational stage

Concrete operational stage

Sensorimotor stage

Formal operational stage

79. What is one major principle of Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory?

Development is continuous and uniform

Each stage involves a conflict that must be resolved

Development is based solely on biological factors

Cultural differences do not impact development

80. How does play contribute to a child's cognitive development?

It enhances physical strength

It helps build problem-solving and critical thinking skills

It prevents emotional outbursts

It solely focuses on social interactions

81. Which of the following is a benefit of early childhood education?

Accelerates emotional maturity

Promotes lifelong learning habits

Ensures academic success for all children

Eliminates the need for primary education

82. What type of play involves children engaging in imaginary roles or scenarios?

Solitary play

Parallel play

Pretend play

Cooperative play

83. Which theorist proposed the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) as a key element in learning?

Sigmund Freud

Lev Vygotsky

Jean Piaget

B.F. Skinner

84. What is a critical period in child development?

A stage of academic success

A time frame when certain skills are most easily learned

A phase marked by frequent mood swings

A period of regression in development

85. Which environmental factor has the most significant impact on child development?

Access to technology

Availability of toys

Quality of parental interaction

Neighborhood infrastructure

86. What role does outdoor play have in child development?

Its is primarily for entertainment

It helps develop gross motor skills and reduces stress

It minimizes the need for structured learning

It discourages group interactions

87. Why is early intervention important for children with developmental delays?

It reduces the need for lifelong support services

It ensures higher IQ scores

It replaces traditional learning methods

It eliminates the impact of genetics

88. What is the recommended intake of cereals and millets for indian pregnant women?

220g

200g

280g

300g

89. What is the additional requirement for folate for lactating women?

50 mic g

80 mic g

100 mic g

120 mic g

90. 1000 days of life given priority in health interventions are

upto 2 years

1-3 years

2-4 years

1.5-3.5 years

91. _____ supplements are a new treatment for diarrhoea to be given always in addition to ORS

Calcium

Phosphorous

Lithium

Zinc

92. Infants born to _____ deficient mothers will develop cretinism and stunted growth

Zinc

Protein

Calcium

lodine

93. A stunted child has a height for age Z score that is atleast _____ SD below median in the WHO growth chart

94. The beneficiaries of SUMAN intervention are

Covid patients

Mothers

Adolescents

Elderly

95. 'Laqshya' initiative aims to improve

Adolescent health

Elderly's health

Non communicable diseases

Labour rooms

96. Regarding early childhood care and education, which of the following is not a key principle fo the National Education Policy 2020?

Rigid curriculum

Holistic development

Play-based learning

Focus on foundational literacy and numeracy

97. Which theorist is most closely associated with the concept of 'Scaffolding'?

Maria Montessori

Jean Piaget

Lev Vygotsky

John Dewey

98. Which of the following is not a crucial factor in creating a high-quality early childhood education program?

Qualified and well-trained early childhood educators

Small class sizes and individualized attention for each child

A developmentally appropriate curriculum that focuses on play-based learning and exploration

A rigid and structured environment that emphasizes academic achievement from a very young age

99. How can preschools in India best promote inclusive education?

Creating separate classes for children with special needs

Providing individualized education plans for all children

Prioritizing the needs of children from privileged backgrounds

Focusing solely on academic achievement

100. Which of the following is not a core responsibility of a preschool supervisor in Kerala?

Ensuring the implementation of the state's ECCE curriculum

Providing direct instruction to children in the classroom

Monitoring the quality of teaching and learning

Supporting teacher professional development