Sub Inspector - ENG | Kerala PSC QBank

1. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

i. Afonso de Albuquerque - Policy of 'mixed colonies' ii. Admiral Van Rheede - French Admiral iii. Dr. Alexander Orme - Hortus Malabaricus iv. Mahe Labourdonnais - The Treaty of Venad

Only i

ii and iii

Only iii

i and iii

2. Read the following sentences and choose the correct answers from the codes given below.

i. The British focused on the expansion of Indian territory, starting with Bengal in the Battle of Plassey in 1757. ii. Doctrine of Lapse was one main means by which Lord Cornwallis extended the British empire in India. iii. Charles Metcalf is known as the liberator of the Indian Press. iv. James Augustus Hickey is often referred to as the 'Father of Indian Journalism'.

i, ii and iii only

ii and iii only

i, iii and iv only

All of the above

3. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched (based on the row arrangement)?

i. Habeas Corpus - 'Social Contract' ii. Stamp Act - George Grenville iii. Jean Jacques Rousseau - 'To have the body' iv. Hanko Incident - Lee Yuwan Hung

Only i

ii and iv

Only iii

i and iii

4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

a. Nagaland became the first State to implement disaster insurance in India. b. As of 2023, the revised prize money for Nobel laureates is 13 million Swedish Crowns. c. Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is a new award introduced to honour scientists in India. d. India's HS Prannoy finished runner-up in the Australian Open Super 500 Badminton Tournament.

Statement b and c are incorrect, a and d are correct

Statement a, b, c are incorrect, d is correct

Statement b and d are incorrect, and a and c are correct

Statement b is incorrect, and a, c and d are correct

5. Consider the following statements about temperature inversion.

Temperature inversion can trap pollutants close to the ground.
Temperature inversion typically occur during clear nights with calm winds.
Temperature inversion result in cooler temperatures at higher altitudes compared to lower altitudes.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

6. Arrange the following districts based on population in descending order based on the 2011 census.

Thiruvananthapuram
Thrissur
Malappuram
Ernakulam

Which one of the following is the correct order?

Malappuram, Thiruvananthapuram, Ernakulam, Thrissur

Malappuram, Ernakulam, Thiruvananthapuram, Thrissur

Malappuram, Thiruvananthapuram, Thrissur, Ernakulam

Malappuram, Thrissur, Ernakulam, Thiruvananthapuram

7. Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Deccan Plateau is primarily composed of metamorphised rocks. Statement II: The Deccan Plateau was formed due to volcanic activity during the Cretaceous period.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

8. The Mackenzie River recently captured worldwide interest as the newest victim of global warming as the river water reached a historic low level due to rising temperature and lower precipitation. Identify the country in which Mackenzie River is situated.

United States of America

Mexico

Dominican Republic

Canada

9. Match the following.

a. People's Plan - i. Jawaharlal Nehru b. Bombay Plan - ii. Shriman Narain c. Gandhian Plan - iii. M. N. Roy d. National Planning Committee - iv. J. R. D. Tata

a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

10. Among the following, which indirect tax is not subsumed in GST?

Customs Duty

Excise Duty

Value Added Tax

Luxury Tax

11. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to The New Agricultural Strategy (NAS)?

Abandoned institutional reforms as a means to foster growth and as an instrument for social justice.

Favoured a singular emphasis on a technology led process of growth supported by price incentives.

The growth first option necessitated sub strategy for aiming at reducing the poverty in the economy.

All the above

12. SATH-E is a project

To bring individual behaviours at the forefront of the global climate action narrative

Of Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital Education

Aiming at zero pollution mobility

Providing one-stop destination for all information on electric vehicles

13. The Kerala Administrative Tribunal was established in exercise of the powers conferred by

Sub Section (2) of Section 4 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Sub Section (2) of Section 4 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1975

Sub Section (6) of Section 2 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Sub Section (2) of Section 4 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1989

14. Which of the following districts in Kerala were included in the first phase of implementation of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme?

Malappuram and Kozhikode

Idukki and Kottayam

Wayanad and Palakkad

Kannur and Kasargod

15. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Akshaya Project in Kerala?

Akshaya Project was launched to impart e-literacy in the State.

Akshaya Project focuses on better citizen-administration partnership through improved service delivery.

Akshaya Project was first launched in Malappuram district.

The pilot implementation was in 2003.

16. Identify the Proclamation that has been hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of the Travancore ryots.

Jenmi Proclamation of 1042 (1867)

Jenmi and Kudiyan Regulation of 1071 (1895-96)

Pattom Proclamation of 1040 (1865)

Settlement Proclamation of 1080 (1904-1905)

17. The official duties of the Kerala State Planning Board are performed by eight important divisions. Identify the one that is not part of these divisions.

Plan Co-ordination Division

Social Service Division

Perspective Planning Division

Centralised Planning Division

18. Recently, Kerala declared man-animal conflict as a State-Specific Disaster. Consider the following statements in respect of State-Specific Disaster.

Coastal Erosion is a State-Specific Disaster in Kerala.
About 40 percent of the funds available under the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) can be used for providing immediate relief to the victims.
The State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) can take actions overriding other norms, including those under the Wildlife Protection Act.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1 only

Both 1 and 2

1, 2 and 3

Both 1 and 3

19. Pellagra is a disease caused by deficiency of

Ascorbic acid

Riboflavin

Thiamine

Niacin

20. Which among the following is not an indicator of health?

Morbidity indicators

Marital indicators

Health policy indicators

Health care delivery indicators

21. Total number of bones in an adult human body is

226

216

260

206

22. Which among the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

Vitamin C

Vitamin E

Vitamin D

Vitamin A

23. Which is the causative organism of Filariasis?

Plasmodium Vivax

Wuchereria Bancrofti

Yersinia Pestis

Bordetella Pertussis

24. Which among the following is not true as recommended dietary modification for preventing Coronary Heart Disease?

Reducing salt intake to 10 gram daily

Limit the consumption of saturated fat less than 10% of total energy intake

An increase in complex carbohydrate consumption

Reducing fat intake of 20-30 percent of total intake

25. World Health Day theme for the year 2024 is

Building a fairer, healthier world

Our Planet Our Health

My Health My Right

Universal Health Coverage; everyone everywhere

26. The price of a commodity increased by 25% in the year 2000, increased by 40% in the year 2001 and decreased by 30% in the year 2002. If the price of the commodity at the beginning of 2003 was 980, what was the price of it at the beginning of 2000?

980

800

880

900

27. Mr. X and Mr. Y started a business by investing annually an amount of Rs. 2,50,000 and Rs. 5,00,000 respectively. After one year, Mr. X additionally invested Rs. 2,50,000 in the business; meanwhile, Mr. Y withdrew an amount of Rs. 1,00,000 from the business. At the end of two years, if the total profit was Rs. 6,60,000, then the profit of each is

Rs. 3,00,000 each

Rs. 3,60,000 each

Rs. 3,00,000 for Mr. X and Rs. 3,60,000 for Mr. Y

Rs. 3,60,000 for Mr. X and Rs. 3,00,000 for Mr. Y

28. In a Marathon race of 50 km, an athlete runs at a speed of $5~km/hr$ for the first 20 km, then at a speed of $7~km/hr$ for the next 14 km and at a speed of $8~km/hr$ for the last 16 km. What is the average speed of the athlete?

$7.5~km/hr$

$6~km/hr$

$6.52~km/hr$

$6.25~km/hr$

29. Two vehicles moving in the same direction at $64~km/hr$ and $46~km/hr$ completely pass one another in 2 minutes. If the length of the first vehicle is 150 m, then the length of the second vehicle is

450 m

400 m

600 m

650 m

30. A water tank in the shape of a bucket has 50 cm diameter at the top and 32 cm diameter at the bottom. What is the capacity of the water tank in litres if it is 42 cm high? (Use $\pi=22/7$ )

56 litres

56.364 litres

57.264 litres

57 litres

31. In some languages, KERALA is denoted by OIVEPE, then in the same language, how is ORISSA denoted?

SVWMME

RVMWWE

SVMWWE

RVWMME

32. The next term of the sequence 14, 34, 133, 352, ...

729

739

1331

1341

33. During a family function, a lady points towards a man and says, "My mother is the only daughter of his mother". What is the relation of the lady to that man?

Niece

Nephew

Sister

Wife

34. M, N, O are 3 towns in a city. If N is 20 km to the east of M and O is 15 km to the south of M, then the distance between N and O is

35 km

25 km

15 km

20 km

35. A, B and C are 3 Institutions in a locality. Bell rings every 45 minutes in Institution A, every 1 hour in Institution B and every 2 hours in Institution C. If the first bell rang at 9.00 am in all three Institutions, then at what time will they all ring together?

2.00 pm

2.30 pm

3.00 pm

3.30 pm

36. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the offence of Cheating under Section 420 of IPC?

The term 'Property' under S. 420 does not necessarily mean that the thing, which delivery is dishonestly desired by the person who cheats must have a money value or a market value in the hand of the person cheated.

If the property becomes a thing of value in the hands of a person who may get possession of it as a result of cheating, it would fall within the connotation of the term Property under S. 420.

Assessment order under the Income Tax Act is a Valuable security and hence Property under S. 420 of IPC.

All the above

37. X threatens Z that he will keep Z's child in wrongful confinement, unless Z will sign and deliver to X, a promissory note binding Z to pay certain amount to X. Z signed the document and delivered it to X. The document was kept on the table by X. It was taken by M without consent but as a loyal servant. Which of the following statements is/are true in this context?

X committed the offence of Extortion

X committed the offence of Theft

M committed the offence of Theft

No offence is committed by X or M

38. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the expression 'soon before death' used under S. 304 B of IPC?

It indicates a fixed period.

It is left to be determined by court based on facts and circumstances of each case.

It denotes the existence of proximate and live link between effect of cruelty based on dowry demand and the death.

Both B) and C)

39. A girl below 16 years of age, who was an inmate of Ashram School was called by the Manager of the School to do household chores while his wife was in hospital. He induced her to have sexual intercourse even though she resisted by verbally saying no to do the act. He blackmailed her not to tell anyone about this incident or else he would fail her in the exams. Offence under which Section of IPC is committed by the Manager of the School?

Section 376 B

Section 376 C

Section 376 D

Section 377

40. Which of the following statements is false with respect to private defence?

There is no right of private defence in cases in which there is time to have recourse to protection of the public authorities.

Right of private defence does not extend to inflicting of more harm than it is necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence.

Law recognizes certain acts against which there is no right of private defence.

Right of private defence does not extend to causing death.

41. Judicial proceedings under Criminal Procedure Code envisages

All proceedings other than a trial, conducted under the Code by a Magistrate or Court.

All proceedings in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath.

All proceedings under the Code for the collection of evidence conducted by a Police Officer or by any person who is authorized by a Magistrate.

All the above

42. Which of the following is/are the right/s of an arrested person?

Right to counsel of his choice during interrogation

Right to be made aware of his right to have someone informed of his arrest or detention as soon as he is put under arrest or is detained

Right to be subjected to medical examination by a trained doctor every 48 hours during his detention in custody by a doctor on the panel of approved doctors appointed by Director, Health Services

All the above

43. Which one is the acceptable mode of serving of summons as prescribed under Section 64 of Cr.P.C., when person summoned cannot be found?

Leaving one of the duplicates with some adult male member of his family residing with him

Leaving one of the duplicates with the servant

Leaving one of the duplicates with the neighbourhood

Leaving the copy at the door step or affix at any conspicuous place of his residence

44. Which provision under Cr.P.C. encompasses the concept of security for good behavior or good behavior bond?

Section 108

Section 109

Section 110

All the above

45. Which of the following is/are true with respect to recording of confession and statements under Section 164 of Cr.P.C.?

Audio-video recording of confessions and statement is impermissible.

Recording with the assistance of special educator or trainer is permissible in case of any person on request.

Statements made by a disabled person with the assistance of special educator or trainer must be videographed.

None of the above

46. An Act referred to in Section 43 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 would constitute a computer-related offence, if it is committed

Dishonestly or fraudulently

Dishonestly or maliciously

Dishonestly or recklessly

Dishonestly or intentionally

47. As per the provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 the punishment for identity theft is

Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to 1 lakh

Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to 2 lakhs

Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to 1 lakh

Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to 2 lakhs

48. Which of the following actions constitutes cyber terrorism, if it causes or is likely to cause death, injuries or destruction of property?

Denying or causing the denial of access to any authorized person

Sending unsolicited emails to a large group of people

Downloading copyrighted material without permission

Sharing false information on social media

49. What is the maximum punishment for a second or subsequent conviction under Section 67A for publishing or transmitting sexually explicit material in electronic form?

Imprisonment for up to five years and a fine of up to ten lakh rupees

Imprisonment for up to seven years and a fine of up to ten lakh rupees

Imprisonment for up to seven years and a fine of up to fifteen lakh rupees

Imprisonment for up to ten years and a fine of up to fifteen lakh rupees

50. Which of the following is not considered a part of the 'computer source code' as defined in Section 65 of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

Program analysis of a computer resource

Computer hardware specifications

Computer commands used in a program

Design and layout of a computer resource

51. Who has the authority to reject a request for information, if it involves copyright infringement ?

Only the Central Public Information Officer

Only the State Public Information Officer

Chief Public Information Officer

Both the Central and State Public Information Officers

52. As per Section 11 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 when must the Central or State Public Information Officer notify a third party about the intended disclosure of information?

Immediately upon receiving the request

Within five days of receiving the request

Within seven days of receiving the request

Within ten days of receiving the request

53. Which clauses of Sub-Section (1) of Section 8 can limit the disclosure of information that is twenty years old ?

Clauses (b), (d) and (f)

Clauses (a), (c) and (i)

Clauses (e), (g) and (h)

Clauses (a), (b) and (j)

54. Which one of the functionaries pledges to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India during their affirmation or Oath ?

President

Vice-President

Governor

Chief Minister

55. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?

Fundamental Rights Subcommittee - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Provincial Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru

Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Union Constitution Committee - J. B. Kripalani

56. Read the following statements. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy are different with respect to

Fundamental Rights are affirmative in nature but Directive Principles are prohibitive.
Unlike Fundamental Rights, people cannot take legal action, if the Government fails to implement the Directive Principles.
Fundamental Rights aim to safeguard the weaker and more vulnerable sections of society, whereas the Directive Principles of State Policy focus on protecting the broader interests of individuals.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1

2

3

None

57. Which one of the following statements is/are not correct?

A writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued to secure the release of a person who has been imprisoned by a court of law on a criminal charge.
A writ of Habeas Corpus lies or is issued against any person or authority who has illegally detained or arrested the prisoner.
Where the person against whom the writ is issued or the person who is detained is not within the jurisdiction of the court.

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 only

2 only

58. Which Constitutional Amendment in India introduced the provision for establishing Tribunals within the Indian Constitution?

44th Amendment

42nd Amendment

24th Amendment

17th Amendment

59. National Commission for Minorities is

A statutory body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
The members of the commission are nominated by Central Government and their selection is not restricted to minority community.
Union Government constituted National Commission for Minorities, New Delhi and State Government constituted State Minorities Commissions in their respective State capitals.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

60. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution.

The Constitution prescribes a maximum period of three years for revoking of financial emergency.
There is no need for the approval of the Parliament for the revocation of the proclamation.
Financial emergency has never been imposed in India until the present.

How many of the above statements is/are not correct?

Only 1

Only 2

All three

None

61. Which one of the following is an attack where the attacker pretends to be a trusted entity and gains unauthorized access to a system ?

DDoS attack

IP Spoofing

Ransomware attack

Brute Force attack

62. Which one of the following techniques enhance the network security by keeping the internal communication isolated from external networks ?

Static IP addresses

Domain Name System

Private IP addresses

Address Resolution Protocol

63. Which of the following specifies a 'Potential Digital Evidence'?

The data stored or transmitted in digital form which is verified and can be used to support or disprove a claim/fact in an investigation.

The data which is stored or transmitted in digital form which is verified and having very high relevance in an investigation.

The data about digital evidence's origin, creation and modification.

Any digital data that might be relevant to an investigation but not yet been authenticated or verified for its integrity, authenticity.

64. The computer network of a large company has been compromised by a ransomware attack. The attacker has encrypted critical files across multiple servers and workstations. They demanded a ransom payment in exchange for the decryption key. Among the following actions initiated by the company's IT Security Wing, pick the one which cannot be treated as live forensics action.

Recording active network connections and open ports

Captures the contents of the system's RAM

Analysis of network traffic data to identify any ongoing data exfiltration

Create a bit-by-bit copy of the entire storage medium, such as a hard drive or SSD

65. Among the following biometrics, which one is the most reliable ?

Iris

DNA

Gait

Fingerprint

66. Which of the following is a method for ensuring the authenticity of an email sender ?

Digital Signature

Antivirus Software

Domain Name System Security Extensions

Email Filtering

67. Which type of metadata is most critical in establishing the authenticity of digital evidence in cloud storage ?

File extension

Geolocation data

Creation and modification timestamps

File size

68. In which of the following types of cyber crimes, CDR analysis is most useful ?

Phishing Attacks

Online fraud conducted through phone communications

DDoS attacks

Malware attacks through email

69. IPDR analysis is used for

Network performance monitoring

Identifying unauthorized network access or abnormal usage patterns

Network traffic monitoring

All of the above

70. If a person's phone is lost, it is being used by another person with a new sim. Which number is more useful to identify the phone?

12 digit IMEI number

12 digit IMSI number

15 digit IMEI number

15 digit IMSI number

71. Implicit Association Test (IAT) is a test of

Creativity

Prejudice

Memory

Intelligence

72. Find out the answer from the codes given below. Load theory of attention holds the following assumptions. I. High perceptual load reduces distraction effects in the visual modality. II. High perceptual load does not reduce distraction effects in the auditory modality. III. Effects of perceptual load and cognitive load are independent of each other. IV. Perceptual and cognitive processes interact with each other and have no separate effects on attention.

Only I is correct

I, III and IV are correct

II, III and IV are correct

I and III are correct

73. During which sub-stage of Piaget's sensorimotor stage of cognitive development do children use trial-and-error in solving problems?

Secondary circular reactions

Mental combinations

Tertiary circular reactions

Co-ordination of secondary schemes

74. Find out the answer from the codes given below. In Social phobia I. Displacement, repression and symbolization are the major defense mechanisms employed. II. Dopaminergic dysfunction is implicated. III. Avoidance of sexual interaction can be improved through the use of Selective Serotonin Re-uptake Inhibitors (SSRI). IV. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI) is an effective treatment when used in conjunction with tyramine rich foods.

I, II and III are correct

I, II and IV are correct

I and II are correct

Only I is correct

75. Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer from the codes given below. (A): Simple span tasks with very rapid presentation of items (running memory span) correlate less with measures of complex cognition. (R): Any working memory task that prevents well-learned maintenance strategies serve as a good predictor of complex cognition.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

(A) is false, but (R) is true

76. Choose the correct sequence of basic strengths emerging at each stage of psycho-social development, as proposed by Erikson.

Hope - Will - Purpose - Competence - Fidelity

Hope - Purpose - Will - Competence - Fidelity

Will - Hope - Competence - Fidelity - Purpose

Purpose - Will - Competence - Fidelity - Hope

77. Find out the answer from the codes given below. Major tenets of Freud's Psychoanalytic approach to human behaviour I. Psychoanalysis is based on the principle of monism. II. Freud's principle of constancy is accepted by non-psychoanalytic schools as well. III. Freud proposed rigid and universal developmental phases. IV. The theory of libido was modelled after electrical concepts.

I, II and III are correct

I, II and IV are correct

II, III and IV are correct

I, III and IV are correct

78. Find out the answer from the codes given below. The neurobiological basis of emotional experience suggests I. Amygdala-Orbitofrontal limbic division facilitates the development of unconscious emotional information. II. Hippocampal-cingulate limbic division integrates cognitions into emotional processes. III. The right hemisphere subserves positive emotions. IV. Female subjects develop pathological crying with left-sided lesions.

I, II and III are correct

II and IV are correct

I, II and IV are correct

I and III are correct

79. Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer from the codes given below. (A): Older people show a reminiscence bump while recalling personal memories. (R): Life-script theory lends support to the reminiscence bump shown by older people.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true, but (R) is false

(A) is false, but (R) is true

80. The pioneer who attempted to associate the changes in the life of a patient with illness using 'life charts'

Adolf Meyer

Holmes and Rahe

Walter Cannon

Kobasa

81. Fill in the blank with the correct word. The story is that there has been a great ______ disruption, a deluge.

climatic

climactic

climate

none of these

82. Add suitable question tags. a) Wait a minute, ______? b) Somebody has called, ______?

will you?, isn't it?

can you?, haven't they?

would you?, have they?

none of the above

83. Insert suitable articles. Tiger, animal equal to lion in size is native of Asia

the, an, a, the

the, an, the, a

a, the, an, a

a, the, a, a

84. Which of the following is correct?

unintentional

miniscule, persue, bourgeoisie

minuscule, pursue, bourgeoise

minuscule, pursue, bourgeoisie

85. The antonym of accidental is

unintentional

incidental

intentional

none of these

86. Identify the synonym of diatribe.

inarticulateness

unresponsiveness

to praise somebody

verbal attack against a person

87. One word for extreme fear of dogs.

cynophobia

ophiophobia

ecophobia

zoophobia

88. He said that the horse had died in the night. Change into direct speech.

He said, "The horse would die in the night".

He said, "The horse died in the night".

He said, "The horse had died in the night".

None of these

89. Choose the correct answer. a) Neither of the boys ______ on time to catch the bus home. b) Everyone of them ______ going home early.

was, were

were, was

was, was

were, were

90. State whether the italicized verb is a dynamic verb or a stative verb. Dynamic and stative verbs seem very confusing to some people.

stative

dynamic

both dynamic and stative

none of these